Paper A Mock Exam 4

Which of the following accurately describes the application of Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy (MRS)?

Static measurement of resonance hydrogen and oxygen ions – even number of protons
Dynamic measurement of resonance carbon and nitrogen ions – even number of neutrons
Static measurement of resonance carbon and oxygen ions – odd number of electrons
Dynamic measurement of resonance hydrogen and phosphate ions – odd number of protons
Static measurement of resonance nitrogen and sulphur ions – even number of protons

What is the primary application of Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)?

Measurement of brain perfusion using radiolabelled tracer molecules
Measurement of tissue structure using X-rays
Measurement of receptor binding and distribution using radiolabelled receptors
Measurement of magnetic fields using magnetic resonance imaging
Measurement of blood flow using ultrasound

What is the primary method of measurement used by functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI)?

Changes in magnetic field strength
Changes in tissue structure
Changes in blood flow
Changes in blood oxygenation level
Changes in electrical activity

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Magnetoencephalography (MEG)?

Assessment of neural connections within the brain
Identification of abnormal patterns of neural activity
Study of auditory processing in the brain
Analysis of functional connectivity between brain regions
Measurement of static magnetic activity of the brain

What is the concept that refers to the images and symbols that represent human experience common to different cultures?

Cultural Relativism
Universal Symbolism
Collective Unconscious (Freud)
Cultural Symbolism
Archetype (Jung)

Which of the following is a concept in psychology that is regarded as universally common to mankind and contains various archetypes described by Carl Jung?

Personal unconscious
Racial unconscious
Cultural unconscious
Universal unconscious
Collective unconscious

What is the term used to describe the unconscious feminine aspect of a male in the psychology of Carl Jung?

Shadow
Persona
Self
Anima
Animus

Which of the following best describes the unconscious masculine aspect of the female psyche, according to Carl Jung’s theory of psychology?

Ego
Persona
Shadow
Anima
Animus

Which of the following best describes an important kind of learning that occurs during a critical period in development?

Habituation
Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning
Sensitization
Imprinting (rapid, unreinforced, and irreversible)

Which of the following drugs is considered a selective antagonist of the D2 and D3 dopamine receptors?

Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Risperidone
Olanzapine
Amisulpride

Which of the following drugs is considered a non-selective long-acting opioid antagonist?

Buprenorphine
Fentanyl
Morphine
Oxycodone
Naltrexone

Which of the following behaviours are most likely to be observed by family members who display high expressed emotions during an interview with a patient?

Empathy and support
Apathy and indifference
Critical comments
Disruptive behavior
Excessive reassurance

What does the Camberwell Family Interview (CFI) assess?

Family functioning
Family structure
Family communication patterns
Expressed emotion in the family
Family history of mental illness

What is enmeshment in a familial or interpersonal relationship characterized by?

Clear and well-defined personal boundaries
Disruptive behavior and conflict
Independence and autonomy
Interpersonal fusion and permeable boundaries
Lack of emotional support and connection

Which of the following statements about triangulation is true?

Triangulation increases the reliability of research findings
Triangulation refers to the use of three different research methods in a study
Credibility and validity are not related to triangulation
Credibility and validity are both important considerations in triangulation
Triangulation is only used in qualitative research studies

Which of the following statements accurately describes circular causality?

Circular causality refers to the cause and effect relationship between two or more variables in a linear sequence
Circular causality is a form of argument where the conclusion is assumed in the premise
Circular causality involves a sequence of causes and effects that leads back to the original cause, producing a feedback loop
Circular causality refers to the simultaneous occurrence of two events, with each event being the cause and effect of the other
Circular causality is a type of causal relationship that occurs when an effect is mistaken for its cause

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Detouring scale?

The Detouring scale measures the degree to which parents manipulate the child's emotions to get their way.
The Detouring scale assesses the degree to which parents use physical punishment to discipline their child.
The Detouring scale evaluates the degree to which parents form an alliance with the child against the other parent.
The Detouring scale measures the degree to which parents align themselves against the child to strengthen their own relationship.
The Detouring scale assesses the degree to which parents use psychological manipulation to make the child feel guilty.

Which of the following features is associated with a psychosomatic family process in relation to eating disorders?

Autonomy and independence among family members
Avoidance of emotional expression among family members
Flexibility and adaptability in family dynamics
Low levels of family cohesion and emotional closeness
Overprotectiveness, enmeshment, rigidity, and lack of conflict resolution among family members

Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between Erickson’s stages of psychosexual development and sexual orientation?

All of Erickson's stages of psychosexual development influence sexual orientation.
Erickson's stages of psychosexual development have no impact on sexual orientation.
Sexual orientation is determined by genetic factors and is not affected by Erickson's stages of psychosexual development.
The stage of identity vs role confusion is particularly relevant to the development of sexual orientation.
Erickson's stages of psychosexual development are relevant to the development of sexual orientation only in childhood.

Which psychosocial stage of Erikson’s theory of development occurs during the second year of life and involves the development of a sense of independence and self-control?

Trust vs. mistrust
Initiative vs. guilt
Industry vs. inferiority
Autonomy vs. shame
Intimacy vs. isolation

What hormone is expressed in mothers who display positive interaction with their babies?

Cortisol
Progesterone
Testosterone
Prolactin
Oxytocin

What is required for the diagnosis of Bipolar Type 1 disorder according to the DSM-5?

At least one episode of hypomania
At least one episode of mania or hypomania
At least one episode of depression and one episode of mania or hypomania
At least one episode of depression and two episodes of mania or hypomania
At least one episode of mania lasting at least 7 days

What is the diagnostic criteria for Bipolar Type 2 disorder?

One episode of hypomania and one episode of depression
Two or more episodes of hypomania and one episode of depression
One episode of hypomania (4 days) and two episodes of depression
One episode of hypomania and two episodes of mania
Two or more episodes of depression and one episode of hypomania

Which of the following best describes the neurochemical basis for tardive dyskinesia?

Increased dopamine release
Decreased acetylcholine release
Reduced dopamine receptor density
D2 super-sensitivity
Increased GABA release

Which of the following best describes the neurochemical basis for Parkinsonism?

Increased dopamine release in the striatum
Decreased dopamine synthesis in the substantia nigra
Reduced dopamine receptor density in the basal ganglia
Increased dopamine reuptake in the prefrontal cortex
Increased D2 sensitivity in the basal ganglia

Which of the following genetic disorders is associated with Lyonization?

Turner syndrome (45,X)
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
Cri-du-chat syndrome (5p-)
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
Huntington's disease

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of psychedelics?

Inhibition of dopamine reuptake
Activation of the mu-opioid receptor
Enhancement of glutamate release
Antagonism of the GABA receptor
Partial agonism at the 5HT2a receptor

Which of the following types of hallucinogens are known to act as full or partial agonists of serotonergic 5-HT2A receptors?

Dissociatives
Deliriants
Entactogens
Stimulants
Classic psychedelics

Which of the following factors is the drug absorption constant dependent on?

Route of elimination
Extravascular route
Rate of blood flow
Food intake
Solubility of drug (which depends on pH, size of particle in the formulation and pKa – ionization constant)

Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is helpful for patients on Lithium?

Captopril
Lisinopril
Losartan
Atenolol
Hydrochlorothiazide

Which of the following medications are metabolized in the kidney?

Lithium
Haloperidol
Risperidone
Quetiapine
Sulpride and Amisulpride

Which of the following is the most important side effect of Lithium in patients with psoriasis?

Nausea
Fine tremor
Polyuria/Polydipsia
Worsening of psoriasis
None of the above

Which of the following drugs can increase the concentration/effects of Lithium?

Aspirin
Digoxin
Metformin
Furosemide
Morphine

What is the mechanism of action of Colchicine in the treatment of gout?

Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
Inhibition of xanthine oxidase
Stimulation of uric acid excretion
Inhibition of leukocyte migration
Blockade of purine synthesis

Which of the following drugs exhibit non-linear kinetics at high doses?

Amoxicillin
Cimetidine
Diazepam
Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, and Fluvoxamine
Metoprolol

Which antidepressant is most beneficial for a depressed patient at risk of developing hyponatremia?

Fluoxetine
Sertraline
Venlafaxine
Escitalopram
Mirtazapine

Which of the following are potential side effects of Topiramate?

Hypotension and bradycardia
Hyperkalaemia and acidosis
Sedation and dizziness
Weight loss and renal stones
Hyponatremia and hypoglycaemia

Why is it recommended to increase the dose of lamotrigine slowly when initiating treatment?

To reduce the risk of seizures
To minimize gastrointestinal side effects
To prevent allergic reactions
To avoid interactions with other medications
To decrease the risk of Steven Johnson Syndrome

Which anti-epileptic is more implicated in aggression?

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Valproic Acid
Lamotrigine
Levetiracetam

Which of the following is a limitation of association studies?

Difficulty in establishing causality
Inability to detect rare genetic variants
High cost and lengthy study duration
Limited sample size
Lack of statistical power

Which technique is most commonly used to identify the exact disease-causing genes?

Genome-wide association studies (GWAS)
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
Next-generation sequencing (NGS)
Linkage analysis location of culprit gene

Which of the following statements best describes the interpretation of the Area Under the Curve (AUC) in pharmacokinetics?

AUC represents the rate at which a drug is cleared from the body
AUC is a measure of the total amount of drug that has been absorbed by the body
AUC is a measure of the time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum concentration in the bloodstream
AUC is used to determine the half-life of a drug
AUC is a measure of the drug's overall exposure in the body over time

Which of the following statements is true regarding the clearance of a drug under first-order kinetics?

Clearance is constant regardless of the drug concentration
Clearance is proportional to the drug concentration
Clearance increases as the drug concentration increases
Clearance decreases as the drug concentration increases
Clearance is not affected by the route of drug administration

Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drugs that follow zero-order kinetics?

Clearance of the drug is directly proportional to the drug concentration
Clearance of the drug is inversely proportional to the drug concentration
Clearance of the drug is not affected by the drug concentration
Clearance of the drug decreases as the drug concentration increases
Clearance of the drug increases as the drug concentration increases

Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism of CRISPR gene editing?

CRISPR-Cas9 system cuts the cell's genome at a random location, leading to the addition of new genes.
CRISPR gene editing is a technique to modify the genome of living organisms based on a complex version of the bacterial CRISPR-Cas9 antiviral defence system.
CRISPR gene editing involves delivering the Cas9 nuclease complexed with a synthetic guide RNA into a cell, resulting in the deletion of the existing genes.
CRISPR gene editing uses the Cas9 nuclease to bind to the guide RNA, resulting in a desired gene being added to the genome.
CRISPR gene editing is a method for altering the genomes of living organisms by delivering the Cas9 nuclease complexed with a synthetic guide RNA into a cell, resulting in a precise cut at a desired location of the genome.

Which of the following statements about CRISPR-associated protein system Cas is FALSE?

Cas9 is a RNA-guided endonuclease that cleaves DNA at specific sites.
Cas1 and Cas2 are involved in the acquisition of foreign DNA in the CRISPR array.
Type II CRISPR systems require only the Cas9 protein for DNA cleavage.
The CRISPR array in bacterial cells contains short, repetitive DNA sequences.
Cas proteins are only found in bacteria and archaea.

What does CRISPR stand for?

Clustered Regular Interspersed Short Palindromic Repeats
Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Polymorphic Repeats
Clustered Regular Interspersed Short Polymorphic Repeats
Clustered Regularly Interspersed Short Palindromic Regions
Clustered Regular Interspersed Short Palindromic Regions

Which of the following elements of CRISPR gene editing produces hindrance to DNA expression without causing degradation?

CRISPR-Cas9
CRISPR-dCas9
CRISPR-Cpf1
CRISPR-Cas13
CRISPR-Cas12a

Which of the following statements is true regarding SERT (serotonin transporter) and VMAT2?

SERT is responsible for the packaging of serotonin into synaptic vesicles.
VMAT2 is responsible for the reuptake of serotonin into presynaptic neurons.
SERT is located on the presynaptic membrane of neurons and facilitates the reuptake of serotonin.
VMAT2 is responsible for the transport of monoamines, including serotonin, into synaptic vesicles.
SERT and VMAT2 are alternative names for the same protein.

Which of the following mechanisms do VMAT2 (Vesicular Monoamine Transporter 2) inhibitors use to inhibit the transport of monoamines, such as dopamine and serotonin, into synaptic vesicles?

Inhibition of monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzymes
Inhibition of dopamine and serotonin reuptake transporters
Directly blocking the activity of VMAT2
Disrupting the formation of synaptic vesicles
Utilizes a protein gradient created by V-ATPases

How many turns do D2 receptors take in the cell?

2 alpha helices
4 transmembrane regions
6 alpha helices
7 transmembrane regions (G-protein coupled receptor)
8 beta sheets

Which of the following is a necessary criterion for the diagnosis of Neurasthenia?

Presence of fatigue as the only symptom
Presence of one additional symptom besides fatigue
Presence of at least two of the seven specified symptoms
Symptoms lasting less than one month
Symptoms are unrelated to any physical illness

According to the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision (ICD-10), which category includes conditions such as somatization disorder, hypochondriasis, and depersonalization disorder?

Mood disorders
Substance-related disorders
Eating disorders
Other neurotic disorders
Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders

What is the term used in ICD-11 to describe a condition that involves multiple, persistent, and distressing bodily symptoms?

Hypochondriasis disorder
Conversion disorder
Somatization disorder
Somatic symptom disorder
Bodily distress disorder

In the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, 10th Revision (ICD-10), what category does Ganser syndrome fall under?

Mood disorders
Substance-related disorders
Eating disorders
Dissociative disorders
Schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders

What type of addiction is Cue Exposure Therapy (CET) most commonly used to treat?

Nicotine addiction
Opioid addiction
Gambling addiction
Food addiction
Alcohol/substance addiction

What self-help group is most commonly associated with the 12-step program?

Narcotics Anonymous
Overeaters Anonymous
Gamblers Anonymous
Co-dependents Anonymous
Alcoholic Anonymous

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome 18 in the cells and is also known as trisomy 18?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Patau syndrome
Edward syndrome

What is the genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome 13 in cells?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by the presence of an extra chromosome 21 in the cells and is also known as trisomy 21?

Turner syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Down syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by the presence of an extra X chromosome in males, resulting in a karyotype of XXY?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by the absence of one of the X chromosomes in females, resulting in a karyotype of 45XO?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by the presence of an extra Y chromosome in males, resulting in a karyotype of XYY?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Jacobs syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is characterized by a deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5, specifically at the 5q11 region?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Cri du chat syndrome

Which of the following genetic disorders is associated with the loss of function of genes on the paternal copy of chromosome 15?

Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome (paternal)

Which of the following genetic conditions is associated with the maternal inheritance of a deletion or mutation on chromosome 15?

Down syndrome
Turner syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Angelman syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome

Which of the following genetic conditions is associated with a microdeletion on chromosome 22q11.2, resulting in a wide range of clinical manifestations?

Huntington's disease
Marfan syndrome
Cri du chat syndrome
Landau Kleffner syndrome
Velocardiofacial syndrome

What is the genetic cause of CADASIL, a rare hereditary vascular disease that affects the small blood vessels in the brain?

A mutation in the APP gene
A mutation in the PSEN1 gene
A mutation in the PSEN2 gene
A mutation in the NOTCH3 gene
A mutation in the Notch gene

What is the genetic cause of Williams syndrome, a rare neurodevelopmental disorder that is characterized by distinctive facial features, cardiovascular abnormalities, and intellectual disabilities?

A mutation in the FMR1 gene
A deletion on chromosome 15
A duplication on chromosome 21
A deletion on chromosome 7
A duplication on chromosome 12

What is the genetic cause of Huntington’s disease, a rare neurodegenerative disorder that is characterized by involuntary movements, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive decline?

A deletion on chromosome 15
A duplication on chromosome 21
A point mutation in the FMR1 gene
A deletion on chromosome 7
A mutation in the Huntingtin gene on chromosome 4

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the metabolism of alcohol in the liver?

Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Cytochrome P450
Glucuronosyltransferase
Epoxide hydrolase

What is the putative mechanism of action of Acamprosate, a drug used to maintain abstinence in alcohol-dependent patients?

Activation of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptors
Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
Antagonism of dopamine receptors
Interaction with neuronal NMDA receptors and calcium channels
Blockade of acetylcholine receptors

Which of the following is the primary mechanism by which Disulfiram causes the disulfiram-alcohol reaction?

Competitive inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase
Non-competitive inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase
Competitive inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase
Non-competitive inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase
Binding to alcohol to form a stable complex

Which of the following is the precursor of serotonin?

Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Histidine
Phenylalanine
5-hydroxytryptophan

Which of the following molecules is the precursor of dopamine?

Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
GABA
L-DOPA

Which of the following is a precursor of noradrenaline?

Dopamine
Epinephrine
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
L-DOPA

Which enzyme is responsible for the decarboxylation of L-DOPA to dopamine in the pathway: Phenylalanine → Tyrosine → L-DOPA → Dopamine → Norepinephrine?

Tyrosine hydroxylase
Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
Monoamine oxidase
Catechol-O-methyltransferase
DOPA decarboxylase

Where is dopamine-beta-hydroxylase (DBH), the enzyme that catalyses the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine, localized?

In the plasma membrane of sympathetic nerves
In the cytoplasm of sympathetic nerves
In the mitochondria of sympathetic nerves
In the Golgi apparatus of sympathetic nerves
In the vesicles containing catecholamines in sympathetic nerves

What is the precursor of acetylcholine (ACh)?

Acetyl-CoA
Acetylcholinesterase
Acetyl phosphate
Choline acetyltransferase
Choline

What undergoes hydroxylation in the synthesis of dopamine?

L-phenylalanine
Tryptophan
L-tyrosine
L-DOPA
Histidine

Which receptor does Ketamine act on?

Competitive NMDA antagonist
Non-competitive AMPA antagonist
Competitive GABA agonist
Non-competitive NMDA antagonist
Competitive nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism of action of Memantine?

Memantine is a selective NMDA antagonist
Memantine is a non-selective NMDA antagonist
Memantine is a selective 5HT3 antagonist
Memantine is a non-selective 5HT3 antagonist
Memantine is a combination of both selective NMDA and 5HT3 antagonists

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Rivastigmine, Galantamine, and Donepezil?

Dopamine agonists
Serotonin antagonists
Cholinesterase inhibitors
GABA enhancers
Glutamate modulators

Which of the following best describes the aura associated with frontal lobe epilepsy?

Visual hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations
Olfactory hallucinations
Cephalic aura (funny feeling in head)
Motor twitching or jerking

Which of the following best describes the aura associated with temporal lobe epilepsy?

Visual hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations
Epigastric aura (funny feeling in abdomen)
Motor twitching or jerking
Olfactory hallucinations

Which aura occurs in occipital seizures?

Auditory hallucinations
Olfactory hallucinations
Gustatory hallucinations
Tactile hallucinations
Visual illusion

Which aura occurs in Parietal lobe seizures?

Visual hallucinations
Olfactory hallucinations
Gustatory hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations
Somatosensory

What type of seizures can occur in the parietal lobe?

Absence seizures
Myoclonic seizures
Atonic seizures
Tonic-clonic seizures
Somatosensory seizures, numbness, electrical sensation and tingling, heat, pressure, or pain

What is a Jacksonian march?

A type of military parade
A neurological disorder affecting the sense of smell
A condition that causes repeated seizures
A progression of muscle contractions in the body during a seizure
A type of auditory hallucination

What drug used in ADHD treatment can cause hypotension?

Methylphenidate
Lisdexamfetamine
Modafinil
Guanfacine
Atomoxetine

What is the mechanism of action of Methylphenidate in treating ADHD, and what potential side effect should be monitored for?

Methylphenidate is a non-stimulant medication that increases the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain, and can cause tachycardia.
Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication that increases the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain, and can cause hypertension.
Methylphenidate is a non-stimulant medication that decreases the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain, and can cause bradycardia.
Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication that decreases the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the brain, and can cause hypotension.
Methylphenidate is a non-stimulant medication that does not affect neurotransmitter levels, and can cause hyperglycaemia.

Which of the following brain regions is associated with reduced volume during FMRI in individuals experiencing visual hallucinations?

Primary auditory cortex
Right supramarginal gyrus
Left fusiform gyrus
Bilateral dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
Middle portion of the left cingulate gyrus

Which of the following is a test for assessing executive function?

Tower of London
Rapid Automatized Naming Test
Boston Naming Test
Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test
Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test

Which of the following is a test used to assess the functioning of the frontal lobe?

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
Rorschach Inkblot Test
Go-no-go test
Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
Thematic Apperception Test

Which of the following tests is commonly used to assess abstraction ability in individuals?

Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test
Boston Naming Test
Finger Tapping Test
Simultaneous Matching-to-Sample Test
Similarities, proverbs, and cognitive estimates

Which of the following parenting styles is associated with the best outcomes for children’s psychological and social development?

Authoritarian parenting
Permissive parenting
Uninvolved parenting
Indulgent parenting
Authoritative parenting

Which of the following terms best describes the parenting style of an authoritarian parent?

Neglectful
Permissive
Helicopter
Authoritative
Military style

Which of the following phrases best describes the parenting style of an authoritative parent?

Laissez-faire
Strict and controlling
Uninvolved
Permissive
Firm, disciplined, and loving

Permissive parenting is characterized by which pairing?

High control and high warmth
High control and low warmth
Low control and high warmth
Low control and low warmth
None of the above

Which of the following statements best describes the uninvolved/neglectful parenting style?

High in warmth and high in control
Low in warmth and high in control
High in warmth and low in control
Low in warmth and low in control
High in warmth but inconsistent in control

Which of the following is not one of the fundamental Gestalt laws of perceptual organization?

Symmetry and order
Proximity
Continuity
Closure
Common fate

What is the phenomenon called when someone perceives a face or other familiar image in an otherwise random or unrelated pattern in the sky?

Apophenia
Simulacrum
Paranoia
Hallucination
Pareidolia

What is the ethical theory that would support the decision to choose group therapy over individual therapy because it would help a larger number of people?

Virtue ethics
Deontological ethics
Consequentialism
Care ethics
Utilitarianism

What ethical principle is at the heart of the decision to withdraw a drug from the market because it has been linked to cardiac events?

Autonomy
Beneficence
Justice
Fidelity
Non-maleficence

Which type of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is associated with exposure to bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) or “mad cow disease”?

Familial CJD
Iatrogenic CJD
Sporadic CJD
Variant CJD
Acquired CJD

Which drug has the lowest tendency to cause hyperprolactinemia?

Olanzapine
Risperidone
Haloperidol
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole

What is the basis for prion diseases?

Viral infection
Bacterial infection
Genetic mutation
Protein misfolding
Immune system dysfunction

According to systematic desensitization, which theory states that two emotional states cannot exist at the same time, and that relaxation should overtake fear in a person?

Cognitive restructuring theory
Operant conditioning theory
Classical conditioning theory
Reciprocal inhibition theory
Exposure therapy theory

A recent study has investigated the effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on brain neurotransmitters. Which of the following statements is true regarding the mechanism of ECT’s therapeutic effects?

ECT increases brain serotonin levels, leading to a decrease in depressive symptoms.
ECT reduces brain dopamine levels, leading to an improvement in mood.
ECT increases brain GABA levels and GABA-B activity, contributing to its therapeutic effects.
ECT reduces brain acetylcholine levels, leading to an improvement in cognitive function.
ECT increases brain norepinephrine levels, leading to a decrease in anxiety

Which of the following statements accurately describes the effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on neurotransmitters and brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)?

ECT reduces the levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and dopamine.
ECT has no effect on neurotransmitter levels or BDNF.
ECT increases the levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and dopamine.
ECT reduces the levels of BDNF in the brain.
ECT increases the levels of BDNF in the brain, which can promote the growth of brain cells

Which of the following statements accurately describes the effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on neurotransmitters such as glutamate and neuropeptide Y?

ECT has no effect on neurotransmitter levels.
ECT decreases the levels of glutamate and neuropeptide Y in the brain.
ECT increases the levels of glutamate in the brain, but has no effect on neuropeptide Y.
ECT increases the levels of neuropeptide Y in the brain, but has no effect on glutamate.
ECT increases the levels of both glutamate and neuropeptide Y in the brain.

Which of the following is reduced in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

Dopamine levels
Serotonin levels
Norepinephrine levels
Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
Acetylcholine levels

Which of the following is true regarding electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels?

ECT increases CSF protein levels
ECT decreases CSF protein levels
ECT has no effect on CSF protein levels
ECT increases CSF protein levels in some patients, but not others
ECT decreases CSF protein levels in some patients, but not others

Which of the following is associated with Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF)?

Increased expression of dopamine receptors
Decreased expression of acetylcholine receptors
Increased expression of glutamate receptors
Increased expression of serotonin receptors
Global decrease in presynaptic serotonin 5HT1A receptors

Hemineglect is a condition characterized by?

Inability to recognize faces
Loss of sensation on one side of the body
Inability to attend to or perceive stimuli on one side of space
Inability to perform movements on one side of the body
Loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the onset of neurological symptoms

Unawareness and unresponsiveness to objects, people or things on one side of the body is a common symptom of non-dominant parietal lobe lesions. Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with this condition?

Dressing apraxia
Constructional apraxia
Visuospatial agnosia
Anosognosia
All of the above are commonly associated with this condition

Attention causes conversion from which memory stores?

Long-term memory to sensory memory
Sensory memory to working memory
Long-term memory to working memory
Working memory to long-term memory
Sensory memory to long-term memory

Which of the following statements best describes the role of astrocytes in the nervous system?

Astrocytes are a type of neuron that generate and transmit electrical impulses.
Astrocytes are immune cells that protect the brain from pathogens.
Astrocytes are support cells that provide nutrients and oxygen to neurons.
Astrocytes are glial cells that help to maintain the blood-brain barrier.
Astrocytes are neuronal cells that aid in the transfer of glutamate.

Which of the following best describes the role of oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS)?

Oligodendrocytes are a type of neuron that generate and transmit electrical impulses.
Oligodendrocytes are immune cells that protect the CNS from pathogens.
Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation and maintenance of myelin in the CNS.
Oligodendrocytes are glial cells that help to maintain the blood-brain barrier.
Oligodendrocytes aid in the removal of excess neurotransmitters from the synapse.

Which type of neurons are commonly known as the largest pyramidal cells in the brain?

Purkinje cells
Betz cells
Granule cells
Golgi cells
Stellate cells

Which of the following statements accurately describes pyramidal cells in the brain?

They are the least common type of neuron in the brain.
They are only found in the cerebellum.
They are responsible for producing myelin in the brain.
They are the most common type of neuron in the brain.
They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.

Which of the following statements accurately describes stellate cells in the central nervous system?

Stellate cells are any neuron that has a spindle-like shape.
Stellate cells are only found in the motor cortex of the brain.
Stellate cells are responsible for producing dopamine in the brain.
Stellate cells are GABAergic and are located in the molecular layer of the cerebellum
Stellate cells are primarily involved in the processing of visual information.

Which of the following statements about purkinje cells is true?

Purkinje cells are found in the cerebral cortex.
Purkinje cells are involved in the transmission of pain signals.
Purkinje cells are only found in the hippocampus.
Purkinje cells are located in the cerebellum and the basal ganglia.
Purkinje cells are responsible for the secretion of cerebrospinal fluid.

Which neuronal cell aids transmission through GABAergic neurons in the caudate?

Granule cells
Pyramidal cells
Purkinje cells
Medium spiny neurons / Spiny projection neurons
Interneurons

A high performing student who regularly consumes alcohol is able to give a presentation in public without feeling anxious. Which of the following terms best describes this individual’s lack of anxiety?

Social anxiety disorder
Agoraphobia
Panic disorder
Generalized anxiety disorder
Social phobia

What is the difference between the DSM-5 and ICD-10 criteria for the onset and duration of adjustment disorder?

DSM-5 criteria require at least one month of onset, while ICD-10 criteria require three months of onset.
DSM-5 criteria require at least three months of onset, while ICD-10 criteria require six months of onset.
DSM-5 criteria require at least six months of onset, while ICD-10 criteria require three months of onset.
DSM-5 and ICD-10 criteria both require one month of onset.
DSM-5 and ICD-10 criteria both require six months of onset.

According to the Holmes and Rahe life event scale, which of the following life events is associated with the highest stress score?

Marriage
Retirement
Buying a new home
Starting a new job
Divorce

A man who witnessed a friend’s demise 6 weeks ago is unable to move a limb despite the absence of neurological deficits. What is the most likely diagnosis for this individual?

Malingering
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
Somatization disorder
Conversion disorder
Posttraumatic stress disorder

Which of the following statements regarding Sodium valproate and congenital anomalies is true?

The risk of major congenital anomalies is lower with valproate compared to other antiepileptic drugs.
Sodium valproate should be used as a first-line treatment for women of childbearing potential.
The risk of congenital anomalies is higher with valproate compared to other antiepileptic drugs.
The risk of congenital anomalies associated with valproate is limited to the first trimester of pregnancy.
Valproate does not pose any risk of congenital anomalies.

Which of the following terms best describes the process of losing one’s own culture while adopting that of another culture?

Multiculturalism
Globalization
Integration
Segregation
Assimilation

Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of the “melting pot” in the context of cultural assimilation in the United States?

The melting pot is a metaphor that emphasizes the blending of diverse cultures into a homogeneous American culture.
The melting pot is a myth that ignores the persistence of distinct cultural identities among immigrant groups.
The melting pot is a historical reality that accurately describes the assimilation experiences of all immigrant groups in the United States.
The melting pot is a term that is more commonly associated with the integration policies of European countries, rather than the United States.
The melting pot is a concept that has fallen out of favour in recent years, as scholars have turned to alternative models of cultural integration.

Which of the following statements best represents the concept of integration in the context of cultural adaptation?

Adapting to a new culture by completely abandoning one's own culture
Resisting any changes in behavior or attitudes when adapting to a new culture
Blending elements of one's own culture with the new culture to create a unique cultural identity
Rejecting the new culture and maintaining one's own culture
Assimilating fully into the new culture and abandoning one's own culture

Which of the following best describes the concept of “separation” in cultural identity formation?

Rejection of one's old culture in favour of adopting a new culture
Incorporation of elements from multiple cultures into one's identity
Maintenance of one's old culture while adopting some elements of a new culture
Balancing two or more cultures equally in one's identity
Not taking new culture, but holding old culture

Which of the following best describes the concept of “marginalization” in the context of cultural identity formation?

The process of assimilating into a new culture while rejecting one's original culture
The integration of multiple cultural identities to form a new, hybrid identity
The conscious maintenance of one's original culture while adapting to a new, dominant culture
The balance of two or more cultural identities in a way that prioritizes one over the others
Not taking new culture, but also not keeping yours

In individuals experiencing auditory hallucinations, which of the following brain regions has been shown to exhibit increased activation during functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) studies?

Prefrontal cortex
Temporoparietal junction
Motor cortex
Insula
Primary auditory cortex

What is the characteristic wave form seen in the electroencephalography (EEG) of individuals with delirium tremens?

Slow wave activity (delta)
Hyperactive trace, fast wave activity (beta)
Normal trace
Hyperactive trace, slow wave activity (theta)
Mixed wave activity (alpha and beta)

What is the mechanism of action for Lamotrigine?

Lamotrigine blocks voltage-gated calcium channels
Lamotrigine increases dopamine release
Lamotrigine enhances GABA transmission
Lamotrigine inhibits sodium channels
Lamotrigine upregulates NMDA receptors

Which statement is correct regarding Sodium valproate and pregnancy?

Sodium valproate is safe to use during pregnancy and has no adverse effects on the foetus
Sodium valproate is associated with an increased risk of congenital heart defects in the foetus
Sodium valproate has been found to improve foetal brain development and cognitive function
Sodium valproate is only harmful in the later stages of pregnancy
Sodium valproate has no effect on the foetus and is safe to use throughout pregnancy

A patient who has alcohol addiction is exposed in a carefully controlled manner to alcoholic literature and associated stimulus of alcohol products in an attempt to make him less likely to relapse. Which type of therapy is occurring?

Cognitive-behavioral therapy
Psychodynamic therapy
Psychoanalytic therapy
Cue therapy
Humanistic therapy

What is the term for the inability to conceptualize or plan the movements needed to complete a task, often resulting in an inability to perform purposeful actions even though the muscles and motor systems are intact?

Ideomotor apraxia
Ideational apraxia
Constructional apraxia
Oculomotor apraxia
Gait apraxia

Which of the following best describes the difference between ideomotor and ideational apraxia?

Ideomotor apraxia involves difficulty with conceptualizing and planning movements, while ideational apraxia involves difficulty with executing the correct movement when given the appropriate tools.
Ideomotor apraxia involves difficulty with executing the correct movement when given the appropriate tools, while ideational apraxia involves difficulty with conceptualizing and planning movements.
Ideomotor apraxia involves difficulty with both conceptualizing and planning movements as well as executing the correct movement, while ideational apraxia involves no difficulty with completing purposeful actions.
Ideomotor apraxia and ideational apraxia are two terms that describe the same thing, a difficulty with completing purposeful actions even though the muscles and motor systems are intact.
Ideomotor apraxia and ideational apraxia are terms that describe two different types of muscle weakness, with ideomotor apraxia being characterized by weakness in the proximal muscles and ideational apraxia being characterized by weakness in the distal muscles.

What is a side effect of Topiramate?

Weight gain
Dry mouth
Fatigue
Increased appetite
Weight loss

Clozapine can interfere with the hERG channel resulting in which cardiac consequence?

Hypertension
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Prolonged QT interval

Edwards syndrome is additionally known as which chromosome abnormality?

Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
Turner syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Cri du chat syndrome

Which medication is a long-acting opioid antagonist?

Naltrexone
Naloxone
Buprenorphine
Bupropion
Fentanyl

What is the common name for the medication that combines naloxone and buprenorphine, and is used in the treatment of opioid dependence?

Suboxone
Methadone
Vivitrol
Naltrexone
Zubsolv

What is the mechanism of action of Varenicline?

Nausea and vomiting
Insomnia and vivid dreams
Headache and dizziness
Mood changes and suicidal thoughts
All of the above

Paroxetine’s prominent side effect is?

Nausea and vomiting
Insomnia and vivid dreams
Headache and dizziness
Sexual dysfunction
Mood changes and suicidal thoughts

What is the mechanism of action of Zopiclone?

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibition
Dopamine receptor blockade
GABA-A receptor modulation (ionotropic)
Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Glutamate receptor activation

What is the mechanism of action of Lamotrigine?

GABA-A receptor modulation
Serotonin reuptake inhibition
Dopamine receptor blockade
Voltage-gated sodium channel inhibition
Glutamate receptor activation

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Paper A Mock Exam 4

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