Paper A Mock Exam 2

What does MRS (Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy) measure?

Blood flow
Metabolites
Brain activity
Neurotransmitter release
Proton flow

A young girl asks her mother if she will have a baby brother. What stage of cognitive development is she demonstrating?

Sensorimotor stage
Preoperational stage
Concrete operational stage
Formal operational stage
Postformal operational stage

The big 5 (OCEAN) factor theory suggest that personality is?

Fixed and unchanging
Independent of self
Can change over time
Determined solely by genetics
Influenced only by environmental factors

Which drug has a non-linear pharmacokinetic?

Ibuprofen
Metformin
Ciprofloxacin
Paracetamol
Fluoxetine

Which diagnostic system includes hypomania as a distinct diagnostic feature for mood disorders?

Neither ICD nor DSM
ICD-11 only
DSM-5 only
Both ICD-11 and DSM-5
None of the available options

Ganser syndrome is defined as what?

A type of eating disorder
A subtype of schizophrenia
A dissociative state
A personality disorder
A form of addiction

Which part of the brain is associated with empathy?

DLPFC
Amygdala
Insula
Cerebellum
Occipital lobe

What is the most common site of methylation?

Cytosine
Adenine
uracil
thymine
None of the above

The proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance is associated with which term?

Phenotype in Population
Heritability
Epigenetics
Homozygosity
Allelic frequency

If some people with the variant do not develop features of the disorder, the condition is said to have reduced (or incomplete) this. Which term is associated with the proportion of people with a particular genetic variant (or gene mutation) who exhibit signs and symptoms of a genetic disorder?

Expressivity
Heritability
Phenotype
Penetrance
Heterozygosity

Which of the following is precipitating factor for mental health illness?

Social support
Bereavement
Physical exercise
Positive thinking
Nutrition

A patient in the assessment clinic demonstrated normal muscle tone, but is left with his arms folded. Which sign/symptom is being demonstrated?

Dysarthria
Clonus
Asterixis
Catalepsy
Bradykinesia

A patient on the inpatient ward maintains the same posture for long periods. The consultant asks you to describe this presentation, what word should be used?

Hypertonia
Dyskinesia
Akinesia
Bradykinesia
Posturing

Which of the following best describes the term “catalepsy”?

A type of sleep disorder that causes individuals to experience sudden, brief muscle weakness or paralysis
A neurological condition that affects movement and coordination
An autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue
A state of immobility or trance-like stupor, often seen in individuals with certain mental health conditions
A respiratory disorder that causes difficulty breathing and shortness of breath

A patient can be positioned into uncomfortable postures, which are maintained for a considerable period of time. What is being demonstrated?

Dystonia
Bradykinesia
Waxy flexibility
Hypokinesia
Akathisia

Which enzyme degrades dopamine in the presynaptic nerve terminal?

Acetylcholine esterase
MAO
COMT
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Dopamine beta-hydroxylase

Which of the following is an amino acid?

Enkephlin
Glutamate
Substance P
Acetylcholine
GABA

Which cells are involved in carrying efferent signals from the cortex?

Pyramidal cells
Granule cells
Purkinje cells
Betz cells
Golgi cells

Which cell line the cerebral ventricles?

Microglia
Ependymal cells
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells

Which cells are involved in myelination of the CNS?

Microglia
Schwann cells
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells

Which term best describes the overall process through which immigrants adapt and potentially integrate cultural practices from both their original culture and their new country?

Assimilation
Integration
Separation
Marginalization
Acculturation

Southern blot is used for detecting what?

DNA fragments of specific sizes
Detecting RNA molecules
Detecting protein molecules
Detecting DNA methylation
Detecting DNA polymorphisms

Which procedure is known to involve a direct current being applied using saline soaked pads?

ECT – Electroconvulsive therapy is a psychiatric treatment that involves inducing seizures in a patient by passing electrical current through the brain, typically under general anaesthesia. It is used to treat severe depression, bipolar disorder, and other mental illnesses.
Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS)
Deep brain stimulation (DBS)
Transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS)
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

Which procedure is known to involve electrodes being implanted in the brain?

ECT
Deep Brain stimulation
rTMS
Vagus nerve stimulation
Transcranial direct current stimulation

What is repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) and how is it used as a non-invasive method of brain stimulation?

A surgical procedure for treating depression
A form of psychotherapy for anxiety disorders
A type of brain stimulation using magnetic fields
A technique for measuring blood flow in the brain
A medication for treating ADHD

Which descriptive describes the loss of identity formation?

Identity diffusion
foreclosure
moratorium
Identity achievement
None of the above

An elderly patient with a depressive episode is considered commencing an antidepressant with her outpatient psychiatrist. She frequently has episodes of hyponatraemia. Which drug is safe for patient with hyponatremia?

Amitriptyline
Mirtazapine
Venlafaxine
Citalopram
Fluoxetine

Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is a precursor of which hormone in the brain?

ACTH
Enkephalin
Substance P
Vasopressin
Oxytocin

An abnormal, contrary, or inappropriate mood, that is often seen in schizophrenia is described as what?

Apathy
Euphoria
Anhedonia
Parathymia
Hyperthymia

A patient reports a sensory stimulus on one side of her body, but perceives it to be being felt on the corresponding area of the opposite side. Which neurological condition is present?

Dysmetria
Allokinesia
Allochiria
Alloaesthesia
Allographia

Which of the following best describes Ideational Apraxia?

Difficulty with planning and initiation of purposeful movements
Impaired ability to recognize objects
Inability to perform learned movements in response to verbal commands
Impairment in the ability to understand and use symbols, such as letters and numbers
Difficulty in executing a sequence of movements required to complete a specific task

What is the most accurate definition of Ideomotor apraxia?

An inability to perform purposeful movements in response to verbal commands
An inability to perform goal-directed movements due to a lack of muscle coordination
An inability to perform learned movements due to damage to the parietal cortex
An inability to perform voluntary movements due to an absence of muscle tone
An inability to perform movements without conscious intention or voluntary control

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of amphetamine?

Enhancement of neurotransmitter release
Inhibition of neurotransmitter reuptake
Blockade of neurotransmitter receptors
Induction of neurotransmitter synthesis
Stimulation of neurotransmitter metabolism

What is the primary mechanism of action of Amphetamine in the central nervous system?

Blockade of reuptake of dopamine
Inhibition of the release of acetylcholine
Enhancement of the release of norepinephrine
Stimulation of serotonin receptors
Modulation of GABA receptors

Which statement best describes the mechanism of NMDA receptor activation?

Exclusively ligand-gated ion channel opening
Exclusively voltage-gated ion channel opening
G protein-coupled receptor activation
Both ligand-gated and voltage-dependent ion channel opening
Activation of intracellular tyrosine kinases

What is the mechanism of action of Vortioxetine?

Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
Blockade of dopamine receptors
Antagonism of 5-HT3 receptors
Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
Blockade of 5-HT2 receptors

What is the main purpose of constructing an Autosomal Recessive Pedigree Chart?

To identify the dominant gene responsible for a particular trait.
To determine the presence of X-linked traits in a family.
To establish the frequency of autosomal dominant traits in a population.
To trace the inheritance pattern of a recessive trait through several generations of a family.
To evaluate the potential risk for offspring to develop a genetic disorder in a family.

Which of the following statements best describes purines?

Purines are nitrogen-containing compounds found in all living cells and are the building blocks of nucleotides.
Purines are monosaccharides that can be broken down into glucose in the body.
Purines are unsaturated fatty acids found in many foods and are important for human health.
Purines are amino acids that are the building blocks of proteins.
Purines are antioxidants found in many fruits and vegetables that protect against cellular damage.

What is the main characteristic of a fixed ratio reinforcement schedule?

The reinforcement is delivered after a set number of responses, regardless of the elapsed time.
The reinforcement is delivered after a set amount of time, regardless of the number of responses.
The reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses, based on the average rate of response.
The reinforcement is delivered after a variable amount of time, based on the average rate of response.
The reinforcement is delivered after a random number of responses or time intervals.

What is a hallmark neuropathological finding in Frontotemporal Dementia (FTD)?

Amyloid plaques
Neurofibrillary tangles
Lewy bodies
Spongiform change
Hirano bodies

The Gestalt principle, which refers to the way in which the human brain organizes and interprets visual information, is based on which of the following psychological laws of perception?

Proximity
Similarity
Continuity
Closure
Symmetry

What is the purpose of the Stroop test?

To measure the speed of mental processing
To evaluate working memory capacity
To assess attentional control
To determine memory recall ability
To gauge language comprehension

What is the Y-BOCS criterion used for in the field of psychiatry?

To diagnose bipolar disorder
To assess the severity of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
To determine the efficacy of antipsychotic medication
To measure the success of cognitive behavioral therapy
To evaluate the presence of depression

What is the primary focus of the highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs according to his theory?

Self-actualization
Esteem
Love and belonging
Safety
Physiological needs

What is the primary purpose of using a Likert scale in survey research?

To measure the frequency of a particular behavior
To quantify a single trait or characteristic of an individual
To assess the strength of agreement or disagreement with a statement
To measure a continuous, numerical value
To determine cause-and-effect relationships

What is a personality disorder and how is it diagnosed according to the DSM-5?

personality disorder is a type of mental illness characterized by rigid and unhealthy patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving. It is diagnosed based on symptoms present for at least 6 months and that cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
A personality disorder is a chronic mental illness characterized by symptoms that last a lifetime and cannot be cured. It is diagnosed based on symptoms present for at least 2 years and that cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
A personality disorder is a type of mental illness characterized by maladaptive patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving that deviate significantly from cultural and social norms. It is diagnosed based on symptoms present for at least 6 months and that cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
A personality disorder is a type of mental illness characterized by inflexible and unhealthy patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving that deviate significantly from cultural and social norms. It is diagnosed based on symptoms present for at least 2 years and that cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
A personality disorder is a type of mental illness characterized by persistent patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving that deviate significantly from cultural and social norms. It is diagnosed based on symptoms present for at least 6 months and that cause significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.

In the field of language acquisition, what is the significance of the critical period in terms of language learning?

The critical period is the time frame in which language learning is at its most efficient and language skills are most easily acquired.
The critical period is the time frame in which language learning is impossible.
The critical period is the time frame in which language learning is not as efficient as it is during early childhood, but still possible to some extent.
The critical period is the time frame in which language learning is the least efficient and language skills are the most difficult to acquire.
The critical period has no significance in terms of language learning.

Which of the following concepts is central to the understanding of gender identity?

Gender expression
Sexual orientation
Biological sex
Gender roles
Gender presentation

What is the most accurate definition of “attachment” and “monotropy”?

Attachment refers to the emotional bond between a parent and a child, while monotropy refers to the practice of feeding infants only breast milk.
Attachment refers to the physical bond between a parent and a child, while monotropy refers to the practice of feeding infants only formula.
Attachment refers to the emotional bond between a parent and a child, while monotropy refers to the practice of feeding infants a combination of breast milk and formula.
Attachment refers to the physical bond between a parent and a child, while monotropy refers to the practice of feeding infants only solids.
Attachment refers to the cognitive understanding of a parent and child relationship, while monotropy refers to the practice of feeding infants only pureed foods.

What is the mechanism of action that confers Mirtazapine its antihistaminic property?

Inhibition of histamine N-methyltransferase
Antagonism of histamine H1 receptors
Inhibition of mast cell degranulation
Increase in histamine clearance
None of the above

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between clozapine and myocarditis?

Clozapine-induced myocarditis is a rare and inconsistent finding.
Clozapine-induced myocarditis is a common and consistent finding.
The incidence of clozapine-induced myocarditis has decreased over time.
The incidence of clozapine-induced myocarditis has increased over time.
The incidence of clozapine-induced myocarditis is unrelated to the dose of clozapine administered.

Which of the following best describes Gustav Mahler’s stages of life, as proposed by psychiatrist and psychoanalyst Otto Rank?

Childhood, Adolescence, Adulthood, and Old Age
Infancy, Childhood, Adolescence, and Maturity
Birth, Infancy, Childhood, Adolescence, and Maturity
Birth, Infancy, Childhood, Adulthood, and Old Age
Infancy, Childhood, Adolescence, Adulthood, and Death

What are the core concepts of Kleinian object relation theory in psychoanalysis?

The Oedipal complex and the resolution of castration anxiety
The mirror stage and the formation of the ego
The death drive and the repetition compulsion
The internal object relations and the formation of the self
The primal horde and the origin of society

In psychological studies, when caregivers of individuals with psychiatric disorders are interviewed, what level of expressed emotion (EE) is most commonly observed?

Low EE
Moderate EE
High EE
EE is not a commonly used measure
None of the above

Which of the following stages of cognitive development is commonly associated with midlife crisis?

Concrete operational stage
Formal operational stage
Preoperational stage
Sensorimotor stage
None of the above

What is the most accurate definition of dissociative motor disorder?

A condition characterized by the development of physical symptoms that are not intentionally produced or feigned
A psychiatric disorder characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personality states
A disorder characterized by the inability to perform purposeful movements
A type of anxiety disorder characterized by physical symptoms such as trembling, sweating, and heart palpitations
A condition characterized by the loss of the sense of voluntary control over one's body movements

Which of the following statements best describes the Sensorimotor stage of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

The stage in which infants learn to coordinate sensory input with motor output to explore the environment.
The stage in which individuals form concrete operational thought.
The stage in which individuals develop abstract reasoning and the ability to think logically.
The stage in which individuals form a sense of self and begin to understand their own mental processes.
The stage in which individuals develop an understanding of others' mental states.

What is the fundamental process underlying equilibration in thermodynamics?

Kinetic energy exchange
Heat exchange
Internal energy exchange
Pressure exchange
Volume exchange

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, what is the process by which an individual incorporates new information into their existing schemas and adjusts their understanding of the world?

Assimilation
Accommodation
Schemata
Equilibration
Object permanence

Which of the following best describes the concept of object permanence in psychology?

The ability to recognize and understand that an object continues to exist even when it is no longer in sight
The understanding that objects have both physical and psychological properties
The ability to understand and mentally manipulate objects in 3-dimensional space
The understanding that objects have a set of stable and predictable relationships with other objects in the environment
The belief that an object is inherently tied to a particular person or place

What is the typical range of word production in 1-year-old children, according to research in language development?

0-10 words
10-50 words
50-100 words
100-150 words
150-200 words

What is the average number of words in a 2-year-old child’s vocabulary, according to research in child language development?

50
100
150
200
250

What is the most effective method of reducing bullying in school settings?

Implementing strict punishments for bullies
Encouraging victims to stand up for themselves
Fostering a positive school culture
Providing education and resources for students and staff
Increasing parental involvement

What is the central tenet of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

Morality is determined by an individual's cultural background.
Morality is determined by an individual's personal experiences.
Morality is determined by the laws of society.
Morality is determined by the outcome of actions.
Morality is determined by a universal set of principles.

“Phobia of strangers, also known as Xenophobia, can be best described as:

A pathological fear of foreign objects
A pathological fear of social situations
An irrational fear of unfamiliar people or things
An irrational fear of intimacy
An irrational fear of rejection

What is the central concept of the theory of grief according to Kubler-Ross?

Anticipatory grief.
Chronic grief.
Complicated grief
Delayed grief
Disenfranchised grief

Which of the following changes in the brain of an adult are known to occur?

An increase in the number of neurons
A decrease in the size of the frontal lobe
A decline in the strength of neurotransmitter signalling
An improvement in the flexibility of synaptic connections
A reduction in the level of myelination

What is the primary function of chemical signalling in the brain?

To facilitate communication between neurons
To regulate the production of neurotransmitters
To control the release of hormones
To modulate the strength of synapses
To mediate the response to sensory stimuli

What imaging modality is most commonly used to study white matter tracts in the central nervous system at the post-graduate level?

Computed Tomography (CT)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)
X-Ray

Which of the following best describes the findings of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)?

Memory loss, difficulty speaking and muscle weakness
Uncontrolled movements and a loss of feeling in limbs
Visual disturbances, tremors and a decreased level of consciousness
Psychotic symptoms and rapid progression of dementia
Abnormal gait, speech impediments and incontinence

What percent of dopamine receptors needs to be blocked for both efficacy and Extrapyramidal Side Effects (EPSE) to occur in typical antipsychotic drugs?

0.5
0.6
0.7
0.8
0.9

What is the change/reduction observed in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) after electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

Decreased levels of neurotransmitters
Increased levels of glucose
Decreased levels of glucose
Increased levels of neurotransmitters
No change in glucose or neurotransmitter levels

Which of the following cell types is primarily responsible for the uptake of glutamate?

Neurons
Astrocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells

Which of the following cells is known to produce glutamate?

Neurons
Astrocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells

Which of the following substances is present in the blood-brain barrier?

Oxygen
Glucose
Insulin
Hydrogen ions
Sodium ions

What is the primary neurotransmitter released by Purkinje cells?

Glutamate
GABA
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Serotonin

What is the main function of the locus coeruleus and its principal neurotransmitter, noradrenaline, in the human body?

Regulating blood pressure
Controlling voluntary movements
Modulating the sleep-wake cycle
Maintaining cognitive processes
Coordinating the immune response

Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme in alcohol metabolism?

Alcohol dehydrogenase
Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) synthase
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Acetyl-CoA synthase

What differentiates Alzheimer’s Dementia (AD) and Vascular Dementia (VaD) in terms of characteristic features?

The onset of symptoms
The rate of progression
The primary underlying causes
The predominant cognitive and functional impairment patterns
The impact on daily activities and independence

In a patient diagnosed with hyponatremia, which of the following classes of antidepressants would be contraindicated?

Tricyclic Antidepressants
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs
Atypical Antidepressants

What is the main mechanism of action of Buprenorphine at the Buprenorphine receptor?

Agonist
Antagonist
Inverse agonist
Partial agonist
Neutral antagonist

What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug Memantine?

Direct modulation of glutamate receptors
Enhancement of GABAergic transmission
Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Blockade of NMDA receptors
Modulation of serotonergic transmission

What imaging modality is considered to be the most effective in detecting diffuse axonal injury (DAI) in the brain?

Computed tomography (CT)
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Positron emission tomography (PET)
Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
X-ray

Which of the following is the most common side effect associated with carbamazepine treatment?

Hypertension
Tinnitus
Ataxia
Diplopia
Dizziness

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of pregabalin?

Blockade of sodium channels
Inhibition of the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
Enhancement of GABAergic neurotransmission
Inhibition of L-type calcium channels
Activation of mu-opioid receptors

What is the mechanism of action of Gabapentin?

Inhibition of L-type voltage-gated calcium channels
Binding to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels
Inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake
Binding to the mu-opioid receptor
Inhibition of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) reuptake

What is the typical EEG frequency range in Hz of Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)?

4-7 Hz
8-12 Hz
13-20 Hz
21-30 Hz
31-40 Hz

What is the typical frequency range of EEG spiking activity observed in absence epilepsy?

3-7 Hz
8-12 Hz
13-17 Hz
18-22 Hz
23-30 Hz

Interaction of Fluoxetine is contraindicated in which of the following medical conditions?

Bipolar disorder
Major depressive disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) therapy
Panic disorder

Which of the following is NOT a physiological change that occurs in the body during pregnancy?

Increase in blood volume
Alterations in hormone levels
Decrease in lung capacity
Increase in insulin resistance
Decreased growth of hair follicles

Which of the following mathematical techniques is used to find the area under a curve?

Differentiation
Integration
Taylor Series
Laplace Transform
Fourier Series

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of restricted affect?

A complete absence of emotional expressions
A reduction in the intensity of emotional expressions
A reduction in the frequency of emotional expressions
An inability to experience emotions
A selective reduction in the range of emotions experienced

What is the role of interleukins in the development of depression?

Interleukins enhance the development of depression
Interleukins have no effect on depression
Interleukins are a cause of depression
Interleukins protect against depression
Interleukins are a symptom of depression

Which of the following is NOT a primary purpose of the Trail Making Test (TMT)?

Executive function assessment
Measurement of cognitive flexibility
Attention and mental processing speed evaluation
Prediction of future academic success
Measurement of visual-motor coordination

Which of the following is the primary role of the hypothalamic neuropeptide:

Regulating the autonomic nervous system
Controlling the endocrine system
Modulating the immune system
Regulating metabolism
All of the above

Which of the following best describes the current understanding of the genetics of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

ADHD is caused by a single gene
ADHD is caused by multiple genes with small effects
The role of genetics in ADHD is unclear
ADHD has no genetic component
ADHD is caused by environmental factors

What is the key component of Gregory’s constructivist (indirect) theory of perception, also known as the “top-down” approach?

The role of sensory data in shaping perception
The influence of prior knowledge on perception
The physiological processes involved in perception
The role of attention in filtering sensory information
The role of cultural and social factors in shaping perception

What is the main role of leptin produced by adipose tissue?

Stimulate hunger
Suppress appetite
Regulate glucose metabolism
Promote fat storage
Control fluid balance

Which of the following is an accurate definition of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

A mental health condition that is triggered by experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event
A disorder that is characterized by excessive anxiety and stress in response to everyday events
A condition that only affects individuals who have served in the military
A disorder that is only diagnosed in individuals who have experienced physical trauma
A condition that is characterized by the presence of hallucinations and delusions

How do antipsychotic drugs affect the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)?

Antipsychotic drugs enhance the permeability of the BBB
Antipsychotic drugs have no effect on the BBB
Antipsychotic drugs decrease the permeability of the BBB
Antipsychotic drugs temporarily disrupt the BBB
Antipsychotic drugs permanently damage the BBB

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events during neurulation in vertebrates?

Formation of the neural crest, then formation of the neural plate
Formation of the neural plate, then formation of the neural crest
Formation of the neural groove, then formation of the neural crest
Formation of the neural crest, then formation of the neural groove
Formation of the neural plate, then formation of the neural groove

What does a Southern blot detect?

DNA fragments
RNA transcripts
Protein interactions
Gene expression patterns
Microbial populations

What is the purpose of using screening scales in psychiatric assessment?

To diagnose specific mental disorders
To assess the severity of symptoms
To identify individuals who may benefit from further evaluation
To determine the effectiveness of treatments
To predict the long-term outcomes of mental illness

What is the purpose of using a Likert scale in survey research?

To measure a respondent's agreement with a statement on a numerical scale
To classify a respondent's personality traits
To determine a respondent's level of income
To identify the demographic characteristics of a respondent
To assess the reliability of a survey instrument

What is the primary purpose of the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)?

To assess memory recall
To evaluate intelligence
To measure executive function
To assess visual-spatial abilities
To evaluate language proficiency

In which brain region is the default mode network (DMN) primarily located?

Frontal cortex
Temporal cortex
Parietal cortex
Occipital cortex
Limbic cortex

What does “default mode” refer to in cognitive neuroscience?

The mode of operation that a computer or device is set to when it is turned on
The mental state in which the brain is passively at rest and not actively focused on the external environment
A brain network responsible for executive functions such as working memory and attentional control
A condition where the brain experiences persistent low levels of activity and low arousal
A brain network associated with processing self-referential thoughts, memories and emotions

What distinguishes the phenomenon of night terror (NREM stage 3) from a nightmare (REM stage)?

Night terror occurs during the day, while nightmares occur only at night.
Night terror involves intense fear, while nightmares involve unpleasant and bizarre dreams.
Night terror is characterized by sleepwalking, while nightmares are characterized by vivid recall of the dream.
Night terror occurs during the NREM stage 3 of sleep, while nightmares occur during the REM stage.
Night terror is caused by an external stimulus, while nightmares are caused by internal psychological factors.

What type of phagocytic cell plays a key role in immune defence in the central nervous system (CNS)?

Microglia
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils

What is “Flight of Ideas” in the context of psychiatry and psychology?

A phenomenon in which a person rapidly switches from one idea to another, seemingly unrelated idea
A defence mechanism in which a person avoids stress or anxiety by shifting their thoughts to other topics
A symptom of mania in bipolar disorder characterized by excessive and rapid speech
A disorder characterized by involuntary and rapid movement of the eyes
A disorder characterized by extreme feelings of guilt and shame

What is the role of cytokines in response to injury of a cell by toxic substances?

To promote the spread of toxicity to adjacent cells
To induce apoptosis of the affected cell
To stimulate inflammation and initiate the immune response
To enhance the repair mechanisms of the affected cell
To inhibit the production of reactive oxygen species

Which of the following drugs is a long-acting opioid antagonist?

Naloxone
Naltrexone
Methadone
Buprenorphine
Fentanyl

Which of the following is NOT a common feature of preverbal particles in Germanic languages?

They typically appear before the verb in a sentence
They often express grammatical and semantic relationships between clauses
They often carry information about aspect and direction
They frequently affect the word order in a sentence
They are optional elements in the sentence structure

What is the half-life of buspirone?

6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
36 hours
48 hours

Which of the following principles forms the core of the “12-Step Program”?

Confession
Penance
Surrender
Repentance
Forgiveness

What is the main difference between Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)?

PTSD is diagnosed after a longer period of time, while ASD is diagnosed immediately after a traumatic event
PTSD involves intrusive thoughts and flashbacks, while ASD does not
PTSD affects the whole person, while ASD affects only the emotional state of a person
ASD can only occur in response to a single traumatic event, while PTSD can occur after multiple traumatic events
PTSD is a more severe form of ASD

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the central concept of Sigmund Freud’s Psychosexual Child Development Theory?

The theory posits that the human psyche is divided into three parts: the id, the ego, and the super-ego.
The theory explains how unconscious thoughts and desires shape an individual's personality through their life.
The theory states that human development is divided into five stages, each associated with a different psychosexual conflict.
The theory explains how individuals form deep-seated neuroses based on unresolved conflicts from childhood
The theory posits that the resolution of each psychosexual stage is essential for healthy adult sexual functioning.

Which of the following is a key concept in Erik Erikson’s psychosocial development theory?

Oedipus complex
Fixed action patterns
Self-actualization
Stages of moral development
Identity crisis

What was B. F. Skinner’s central argument regarding the study of behavior?

That behavior is shaped by innate qualities and characteristics.
That behavior is determined by environmental factors such as reinforcement and punishment.
That behavior is the result of unconscious thoughts and emotions.
That behavior is a combination of nature and nurture.
That behavior is best understood through introspection and self-reflection.

Which of the following concepts is NOT a key aspect of operant conditioning, as proposed by B.F. Skinner?

Reinforcement
Punishment
Extinction
Shaping
Insight learning

What is the central focus of Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory?

The acquisition of knowledge through processes of assimilation and accommodation.
The development of moral reasoning in children.
The formation of attachments in infants.
The neural basis of perception.
The influence of social and cultural factors on cognitive development.

Which of the following best describes the key characteristics of Piaget’s Sensorimotor Stage of development?

The child develops an understanding of the physical properties of objects through trial and error.
The child begins to understand that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight.
The child develops the ability to engage in mental representation of objects.
The child develops a sense of morality through observation and imitation of others.
The child begins to understand the cause and effect relationships between actions and events.

Which of the following best describes the characteristics of the preoperational stage of cognitive development, as described by Jean Piaget?

Children are able to perform mental operations and understand cause-and-effect relationships.
Children possess an egocentric view of the world and struggle to take the perspective of others.
Children are able to engage in symbolic play and begin to form complex mental representations.
Children have a well-developed theory of mind and can understand the mental states of others.
Children possess an understanding of object permanence and can accurately track objects through space and time.

Which of the following best describes the concrete operational stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget?

The stage where a child's cognition is primarily focused on exploring the physical environment around them.
The stage where abstract thought and hypothetical scenarios become possible for the first time.
The stage where children begin to understand and apply logical operations to concrete experiences, but struggle with abstract or hypothetical concepts.
The stage where a child is completely egocentric, unable to see things from another's perspective.
The stage where a child begins to use symbols and language to represent the world.

What is the hallmark of Piaget’s formal operational stage of cognitive development?

Representational thought
Concrete operational thought
Preoperational thought
Social interaction
Sensory-motor coordination

What is the central concept of Social Learning Theory?

Observational learning
Reinforcement
Motivation
Punishment
Classical Conditioning

What are the five styles of attachment, as described by attachment theory?

Secure, avoidant, ambivalent, disorganized, dismissing
Anxious, avoidant, ambivalent, fearful, disorganized
Secure, avoidant, ambivalent, fearful, dismissing
Secure, anxious, ambivalent, fearful, dismissing
Secure, avoidant, ambivalent, fearful, disorganized

What is the fourth attachment style that was added to Mary Ainsworth’s framework on children’s attachment styles?

Ambivalent attachment
Secure attachment
Anxious attachment
Avoidant attachment
Disorganized attachment

Which of the following neurotransmitter systems is associated with regulation of mood and anxiety?

Glutamate
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
Dopamine
All of the above.

Which of the following regions of the brain is responsible for integrating sensory information from different modalities and creating a unified representation of the external world?

Hippocampus
Amygdala
Thalamus
basal ganglia
Cerebellum

Which of the following structures is most closely associated with the generation of visual hallucinations in the human brain?

Hippocampus
Occipital lobe
Thalamus
Amygdala
Parietal lobe

What is the main function of the Lingual Gyrus?

Visual processing
Auditory processing
Somatosensory processing
Olfactory processing
Gustatory processing

Which of the following EEG patterns is most commonly seen in different types of seizures?

Bilateral, synchronous, rhythmic spikes and waves
Unilateral, asynchronous, polyspikes and sharp waves
Bilateral, asynchronous, slow waves and spikes
Unilateral, synchronous, fast rhythmical spikes
Bilateral, synchronous, slow rhythmical spikes

What is the effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) on the EEG and CSF of patients receiving the treatment?

ECT causes an increase in EEG activity
ECT causes a decrease in EEG activity
ECT has no effect on EEG activity
ECT causes an increase in CSF volume
ECT causes a decrease in CSF volume

What are the main imaging modalities used for the evaluation of brain pathologies?

Computed Tomography (CT)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Single-Photon Emission Computed Tomography (SPECT)
All of the above

Which of the following tests is considered the gold standard for assessing executive functioning?

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST)
Tower of Hanoi (TOH)
Digit Span Test
Stroop Test
Benton Visual Retention Test (BVRT)

What is “Attentional bias”?

A phenomenon where an individual's thoughts, emotions and behaviours are directed towards a particular object or idea
A cognitive process by which an individual selectively attends to information that is relevant to their goals or needs
A type of learning where an individual's behavior is shaped by rewards and punishments
A psychological phenomenon where the individual is more likely to perceive and respond to information that confirms their existing beliefs
A concept in the field of Artificial Intelligence, where the system's attention is directed towards a specific input.

Which of the following cognitive or motor functions is most commonly associated with damage to the right parietal lobe?

Language production
Attention and working memory
Spatial perception and navigation
Face recognition
Motor planning and execution

Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of Gerstmann’s syndrome?

Prosopagnosia
Agraphia
Balint syndrome
Aphasia
Topographical disorientation

What is the primary symptomology of Balint’s syndrome, a condition caused by damage to both parietal lobes?

Impairment of voluntary eye movements
Inability to perform motor tasks
Difficulty integrating visual scenes
Deficits in visual attention
All of the above

What is the primary purpose of administering the Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)?

To diagnose obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
To measure the severity of OCD symptoms
To assess the effectiveness of OCD treatment
To determine the presence of other mental health disorders
To predict the likelihood of future OCD outbreaks

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the AUC (area under the curve) and the extent of exposure to a drug and its clearance rate from the body?

AUC is positively correlated with the extent of exposure to a drug and negatively correlated with its clearance rate from the body
AUC is negatively correlated with the extent of exposure to a drug and positively correlated with its clearance rate from the body
AUC is positively correlated with the extent of exposure to a drug and positively correlated with its clearance rate from the body
AUC is negatively correlated with the extent of exposure to a drug and negatively correlated with its clearance rate from the body
There is no relationship between AUC and the extent of exposure to a drug and its clearance rate from the body

Which of the following best describes the purpose of Southern blotting?

To identify specific DNA sequences within a mixture of DNA fragments
To determine the molecular weight of a specific DNA fragment
To quantify the amount of DNA present in a sample
To visualize the three-dimensional structure of DNA
To determine the chromosomal location of a specific DNA sequence

Which of the following statements best describes the differences between zero order and first order kinetics in pharmacokinetics?

Zero order kinetics describe drug metabolism where the rate of elimination is constant, whereas first order kinetics describe drug metabolism where the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration.
Zero order kinetics describe drug metabolism where the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration, whereas first order kinetics describe drug metabolism where the rate of elimination is constant.
Zero order kinetics describe drug absorption, whereas first order kinetics describe drug elimination.
Zero order kinetics describe drug elimination, whereas first order kinetics describe drug absorption.
Zero order kinetics and first order kinetics describe the same phenomenon in pharmacokinetics.

What is the most accurate definition of “Genetic heritability”?

The proportion of variation in a trait that is due to individual environmental factors
The proportion of variation in a trait that is due to genetic factors
The proportion of variation in a trait that is due to both genetic and environmental factors
The proportion of variation in a trait that is due to shared environmental factors
The proportion of variation in a trait that is due to random chance

What is the most accurate definition of the term “gender identity schema”?

The set of beliefs and attitudes that individuals have towards themselves and their own gender.
The unconscious cognitive processes by which individuals categorize themselves and others into different gender categories.
The social and cultural norms that define what behaviours and characteristics are considered appropriate for each gender.
The internalized representation of one's gender that serves as a guide for their thoughts, feelings, and behaviours.
The extent to which an individual identifies with and feels comfortable in their assigned gender.

What is a typical developmental milestone that is commonly achieved around age two?

Inability to understand cause and effect
Ability to form stable attachments
Mastery of object permanence
Development of a complex theory of mind
Lack of self-awareness

Which of the following best describes the developmental stage of a child prior to their third birthday?

Formal operational stage
Concrete operational stage
Preoperational stage
Sensorimotor stage
None of the above

At what age is a child typically able to understand and exhibit the following cognitive and developmental milestones associated with the theory of mind?

3 to 4 months
1 to 2 years
2 to 3 years
3 to 4 years
5 to 6 years

Which of the following best describes the “self-serving bias”?

The tendency to attribute one's own successes to internal factors such as abilities, while attributing failures to external factors such as luck.
The tendency to attribute the successes of others to external factors such as luck, while attributing their failures to internal factors such as lack of abilities.
The tendency to attribute the successes and failures of both oneself and others to external factors such as luck.
The tendency to attribute the successes and failures of both oneself and others to internal factors such as abilities.
None of the above

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Paper A Mock Exam 2

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